05-02-2016, 08:01 PM
The psalms are filled with "prayers" for God to take action against the psalmist's enemies (and God's enemies, and there are thanks when God does protect the psalmist from enemies). Here's one example:
Psalm 109
5 They repay me evil for good,
and hatred for my friendship.
6 Appoint someone evil to oppose my enemy;
let an accuser stand at his right hand.
7 When he is tried, let him be found guilty,
and may his prayers condemn him.
Jesus says, "But I tell you, love your enemies and pray for those who persecute you."
In saying this, did Jesus invalidate the notion of prayer for God to appoint someone to oppose your enemy so that he may be found guilty (and presumably punished)? If so, then what do you do with such psalms? Reject them? If not, why not?
(That particular psalm may have a dual purpose, one of which is prophetic, but there are other psalms like it that don't seem to have a prophetic significance. A simple search would turn up other examples.)
Psalm 109
5 They repay me evil for good,
and hatred for my friendship.
6 Appoint someone evil to oppose my enemy;
let an accuser stand at his right hand.
7 When he is tried, let him be found guilty,
and may his prayers condemn him.
Jesus says, "But I tell you, love your enemies and pray for those who persecute you."
In saying this, did Jesus invalidate the notion of prayer for God to appoint someone to oppose your enemy so that he may be found guilty (and presumably punished)? If so, then what do you do with such psalms? Reject them? If not, why not?
(That particular psalm may have a dual purpose, one of which is prophetic, but there are other psalms like it that don't seem to have a prophetic significance. A simple search would turn up other examples.)